Arch-Enemy

There is a saying, "man's worst enemy is man himself", but that is not true. Had not wicked spirits been around, men's egos would not be that dangerous. It is the Devil and other wicked spirits, and their cronies who still rule and control this planet, that are mankind's worst enemies. The Devil (Satan) can in many ways be said to be mankind's arch-enemy.


Satan's different names and their meaning and etymology. Various bible-passages which may or may not refer to Satan.
In the Bible, Satan the Devil (or, the Enemy) is called by many different names: "Adversary", "accuser", "destroyer", "the old snake", "the ruler of this age", "the ruler of the devils", "liar (and the father of it)", "murderer", "the evil one", "a roaring lion seeking whom he may devour", and so on.

Again, some say, "man is his own worst enemy", but that is not true. Satan is mankind's arch-enemy and worst enemy - Satan and his cohorts.


The word satan in the Old Testament.
The Hebrew noun satan meant "an opponent", "an adversary", "an enemy". The first bible-passage where the noun satan appears, is Numbers 22:22-23 (where the word satan was used in connection with a messenger the Lord had sent), and after that, 1 Samuel 29:4, 2 Samuel 19:22 and 1 Kings 5:4 and 1 Kings 11:14-23-25, where the word satan referred to "adversaries" or "enemies" on the human level.

The manner of leaving that word untranslated, as Satan, occurs in the KJ version first in 1 Chronicles 21:1. But, it could be that even in that verse, the meaning is "adversary" or "enemy", instead of "Satan". Explanation: The context shows that it was a war-situation. The meaning might have been that as the enemy was pressing on, that caused ("provoked") David to count the number of his own soldiers, thus relying on numbers or army-power, instead of relying on the Lord.

In addition to that, the Hebrew word satan is in most translations of the OT interpreted as a reference to Satan, in 17 passages: Job 1:6-7-8-9-12, Job 2:1-2-3-4-6-7, Zechariah 3:1-2. It is true that we cannot be fully certain that the adversary (Hebrew, satan) mentioned in Job 1 and 2 is the same person as the same person as the Satanas of the New Testament, and it is the same with Zechariah 3:1-2. But, it would nevertheless seem likely that those 11 passages in Job 1 and 2 and those 2 in Zechariah 3, indeed do refer to Satan the Devil.

There is also Psalms 109:6, but it seems that in that case, the translation might be "an adversary", instead of "Satan".

The LXX translated the Hebrew word satan with (derivatives of) such words as diabolos, epiboulos, endiaballô, antikeimai, and so on. In the LXX, the word satan is found only in 1 Kings 11:14 (where the KJ version has "adversary").

Regarding the word "Satan" in the New Testament, look further down.



The word 'devil' in the Old Testament.
In the KJ version's Old Testament, the word "devil" occurs only in the plural form, "devils", and only in four passages - Leviticus 17:7, Deuteronomy 32:17, 2 Chronicles 11:15 and Psalms 106:37 which refer to evil spirits or idols in general and not especially to Satan.

A note: As was mentioned above, the LXX often translated the Hebrew word satan with the Greek noun diabolos which is the root of the English word "devil".
Regarding the word "Satan" in the Old Testament, see above; regarding the New Testament, look further down.


The word satanas in the New Testament.
Again, the Hebrew noun satan meant "an opponent", "an adversary", "an enemy". The Greek text of the New Testament uses that same word, however with the spelling satanas.

In the NT, the first occurrence (of a total of 36) of the word satanas is found in Matthew 4:10. There, a person called diabolos (Matthew 4:1, Greek for "slanderer", "enemy") tempted Jesus, offering him the kingdoms of this world if he only bowed down before him (before the one called diabolos). Jesus did not do that, of course, but said to the diabolos, as the Greek text has it, "hupagê satana" - "go away, enemy" or "go away, slanderer" (Matthew 4:1-10).

Regarding the word satan in the Old Testament, see above, earlier in this essay.


The word 'devil' and 'devils' in the New Testament.
The English word "devil" is a corruption of the Greek diabolos which meant "a slanderer" (and so on) and was related to the verb diaballô which meant, among other things, "to slander", "to accuse". (Diabolos was used both as a noun and as an adjective; there was also the adverb form diabolôs.)

The first occurrence (of a total of 3 of the word diabolos in the New Testament, is found in Matthew 4:1 which was mentioned above. Matthew 4:10 shows that Jesus called that diabolos by the name or epithet satanas.

When the KJV New Testament text has "devils", plural (46 passages), the Greek text never has diabolos but instead daimonion, daimôn or daimonizomai. Those words refer to wicked spirits in general, and not especially to Satan. But, when the KJV New Testament text has "devil", singular (57 passages), the Greek text can have diabolos (35 passages, referring to Satan) or daimonion, daimôn or daimonizomai (24 passages, referring to wicked spirits in general).

In James 3:15, the KJV has "devilish"; the Greek text had daimoniôdês.

In 1 Timothy 3:11, 2 Timothy 3:3 and Titus 2:3, the word diabolos refers to human accusers or slanderers.

The epithet 'Accuser', used of Satan.

Revelation 12:9 connects to one and the same person the words drakôn ("snake"), ophis (another word for "snake"), diabolos ("slanderer", "accuser") and satanas (of Hebrew origin, meaning "adversary", "enemy").

The wording is, ho drakôn ho megas ho ophis ho archaios ho kaloumenos diabolos kai ho satanas, "the big snake, the ancient serpent who is called slanderer and adversary".

The next verse, Revelation 12:10, adds the word katêgoros which also means "accuser". The text says, "the accuser [katêgoros] of our brothers is cast down [to the Earth], the one accusing [katêgorôn] them before our God day and night".

(Elsewhere in the NT, the word katêgoros refers to human accusers.)

The KJ version's Old Testament does not contain the word "accuser"; there, the Hebrew word satan is often translated as "adversary". For more on this, look above, under the heading "The word satan in the Old Testament".


Was Satan called 'Lucifer', in the Bible?
Is "Lucifer" another name for Satan? No, it is not. Lucifer is a Latin word. The Bible was not written in Latin, but in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek.

It is the Latin, Catholic Vulgate version which is the origin of the word "lucifer", in the religious context. It has lucifer in Job 11:17, Isaiah 14:12 and 2 Peter 1:19, and luciferum in Job 38:32 and Psalms 110:3 (Psalms 109:3).

Some might think about Isaiah 14:12, where the Vulgate translated Hebrew wording helel ben shachar which meant "shining one, son of the morning", as lucifer qui mane oriebaris. But - this is important - those words helel ben shachar did not refer to Satan. Instead, they were a part of a prophecy regarding what was to happen to the last king of Babylon (that is, Belshazzar).

An explanation: Nimrod and later kings of Babylon were seen as "shining ones" or "sun-gods". Apparently it was because of that, that the king of Babylon was mockingly called "shining one" (Isaiah 14:12). Further, the mocking words of that prophecy note that that "sun-god" (the king of Babylon) was to fall down from his skies. Chapter 5 in the book of Daniel records how that prophecy came to be fulfilled, when Babylon fell and its last king (Belshazzar) was killed.

A side-note: There is a similar passage in Ezekiel 28, but it did not refer to Satan either but instead to a man of flesh, a king of Tyre:

Ezekiel 28:1 The word of the Lord came to me again, saying, 2 Son of man, say to the ruler of Tyre, This is what the Lord has said: Because your heart has been lifted up, and you have said, I am a god, I am seated on the seat of God in the heart of the seas; but you are man and not God, though you have made your heart as the heart of God (BBE, emphasis added)

Some of those things might in some way typify Satan or his ways or fate, but it is important to note that Ezekiel 28 and Isaiah 14 simply do not talk about Satan but about the fate of two specific rulers of ancient times.




Some claim that Satan supposedly was or is an 'arch-angel', but the Bible does not say that.
The word "arch-angel" occurs only two times in the Bible, in 1 Thessalonians 4:16 and Jude 9. Neither of those occurrences refers to Satan. So, where does the idea that Satan was an arch-angel, come from? That is hard to say. The whole thing is a myth, perhaps invented in order to "enhance" Satan's image.


Regarding the word and concept 'arch-angel'.
Let us consider the word archaggelos (archangelos) that appears in the Greek text of two New Testament passages. It was combined from archos and aggelos (angelos), and simply meant "chief messenger".

Here, it is important to note that the Bible is very clear that Jesus is God's Chief Messenger (arch-aggelos) of the true God who is in Heaven.

Some have claimed that "arch-angel" was a "rank" among angels, but again, the Greek word in question, archaggelos (archangelos), simply meant "chief messenger". And, as we all know, it is Jesus who is God's Chief Messenger.

The Bible does not contain anything that would indicate "ranks" among Gods faithful angels. Jewish (and Catholic) myths have all kinds of names and "ranks" for angels, but it seems that the Jews "received" such "knowledge" from Babylon when they were in exile there. The Bible does not talk about ranks for God's messengers (Hebrew malak, Greek aggelos, angelos, both meaning "messenger"), but there is, of course, a certain one who is the Chief Messenger: Jesus.


Was Satan a 'cherub'?
There is a myth that claims that Satan was a "cherub" (Hebrew, keruwb), and even that Satan supposedly, as one of the cherubim (keruwbim), "overshadowed the throne of God". But, where in the Bible would such a statement be found? It simply is not there.

As far as we can see in the Bible, Satan did not "overshadow the throne of God". There is no mention of any such thing in the Bible, and then, we know that Jesus said that Satan (whose name means "opponent", "adversary", "enemy") was a liar and murderer from the beginning. Would God have liars or murderers on his side, at his throne?

Then, as some have claimed that Satan was a "cherub", there is the question, what were the keruwbim that stood as statues by the "mercy seat" in the temple and pictures of which were used as decoration on the temple walls - or those who were put to guard the garden of Eden (Paradise)?

Catholic myths (and possibly also Jewish ones) may claim that the keruwbim were angels, but does the Bible say that? No, it does not. A closer study of the matter (including the Hebrew text of the OT) shows that most probably, the keruwbim were not angels at all but instead large winged creatures of some kind.


Is Satan an angel? Does the Bible ever call Satan an angel?
Above, it was shown that Satan was not an archangel. But, has he ever been an angel of God? Or, "a son of God"?

This might surprise some - the Bible does not say that Satan would have been an angel (angelos or malak). That is, the Bible does not say that Satan would have been a messenger of God.

Explanation: What many bible-translations call "angels", were in the biblical record called, in the singular form malak (OT, Hebrew) and aggelos (angelos) (NT, Greek). Those words simply meant "a messenger". Mostly (but not always), when bible-translations mention "angels", that refers to messengers of God. The question, is, was Satan ever a messenger of God? The Bible contains no mention or even indication that Satan would ever have been a messenger of God (God's malak or angelos). (Satan himself has his own aggeloi, though - that is, his own messengers. But, his messengers are not God's messengers.)

Some might in this connection think of 2 Corinthians 11:14, but a closer study of that passage shows that it does not call Satan angel, either. It only says that Satan has pretended that he is a "messenger of light" (aggelon phôtos) - while he in actual fact is a ruler of darkness. There is more in 2 Corinthians 11:14, later in this essay.

Also, there is Revelation 9:11. Chapter 9 in the book of Revelation records a vision the apostle John had, regarding an abyss, locusts, smoke and more, and even a "messenger of the abyss":

Revelation 9:11 and they have over them a king---the messenger of the abyss---a name is to him in Hebrew, Abaddon, and in the Greek he hath a name, Apollyon. (YLT)

But, the fact that John called that figure in his vision ton aggelon tês abussou, "the messenger of the abyss", does not make a messenger of God (angel) of Satan.


Is Satan 'a son of God'?
There is also the question, is Satan ever called "a son of God", in the Bible?

Some might think so, because of a certain passage in the book of Job, but let us read what it actually says:

Job 1:6 Now there came a certain day, when the sons of God entered in to present themselves unto Yahweh,––so the accuser also entered, in their midst. (EB)

Job 1:6 And the day is, that sons of God come in to station themselves by Jehovah, and there doth come also the Adversary in their midst. (YLT)

Does that passage make a "son of God" of Satan? No. It only says that "the sons of God" (whoever they were) came to present themselves before the Lord, and that when that happened, even Satan came there.

So, the "sons of God" came there - and so did even Satan, the Adversary. But, that Satan came to the same place as those "sons of God" did, does not make a "son of God" of Satan.


Is Satan immortal?

The Bible does not say that. Instead, it indicates that even Satan (and angels) can die.

Now, here is an interesting passage in Paul's letter to the Jewish saints:

Hebrews 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. (KJV, emphasis added)

It is not clear whether that "destroying through death" refers to Satan's coming death, to Jesus death in place of others, or to both. But, it seems that in the past, Satan had some legal powers over humans. Through his death in place of others, Jesus ransomed mankind from Satan's power.

(Regarding the word "immortal": Not dying - under certain circumstances not ageing but ever-living. But, the matter of immortality and everlasting life is something for a separate study.)



Can angels who have sinned, be forgiven?

And also: Did Jesus' die for mankind only?

Angels can fail in various things (they can sin), just as humans can. Is there any way for angels to have their failings (sins) forgiven?

Some preachers have claimed that angels who have sinned, are not able to repent because their character supposedly "is set". But, that claim is taken out of the thin air; the Bible say no such thing.

Yes, the Bible indicates that Satan will not repent. It could be even that some (or perhaps even many) of the angels who have sided with Satan, will not repent, either. But, there is no indication that they could not repent if they wanted, or, that they could not have repented when a chance for that was given to them.

Let us read something in the apostle Paul's letter to the saints in Colosse:

Colossians 1:20 and by Him to reconcile all things to Himself, by Him, whether things on earth or things in heaven, having made peace through the blood of His cross. (NKJV, emphasis added)

Some might say, "But God's faithful angels are righteous." Now, even though it may be hard to find such a statement in the Bible, that probably is so, when it comes to those angels who remain faithful to the Father who is in Heaven. But then, even the saints were counted as righteous, despite the fact that all men sin. Also: The Bible does not say that God's faithful angels have never sinned. So, it could be that Colossians 1:20 has a bearing on their fate, as well as that of humans.

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